Struggling to remember all the important 2-mark questions from Resources and Development?
You’re not alone.
This List of Resources And Development 2 Marks Questions And Answers is packed with definitions, classifications, and real-world applications — and it often shows up in the exam in tricky ways.
Most students lose marks not because they don’t study, but because they can’t recall the right answer quickly and accurately under pressure.
That’s exactly why we’ve created this powerful resource: 100 exam-focused, clearly answered 2-mark questions that cover every corner of the chapter — from definitions and classifications to sustainable development, soil types, and land use patterns.
Whether you’re doing a last-minute revision or trying to boost your confidence before exams, this guide is your shortcut to scoring full marks.
Table of Contents
Topic 1: Definition and Classification of Resources
Q1. Define what can be termed as a ‘Resource’. (2 Marks)
Answer: Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs, provided it is technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be termed as ‘Resource’.
Q2. Explain the interactive relationship involved in the transformation process of things available in our environment into resources. (2 Marks)
Answer: The process of transformation of things available in our environment involves an interactive relationship between nature, technology and institutions. Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate their economic development.
Q3. Why are resources not considered free gifts of nature, as commonly assumed by many? (2 Marks)
Answer: Resources are not free gifts of nature; they are a function of human activities. Human beings themselves are essential components of resources, as they transform material available in our environment into resources and use them.
Q4. List two bases for classifying resources. (2 Marks)
Answer: Resources can be classified on the basis of origin (biotic and abiotic) and on the basis of exhaustibility (renewable and non-renewable).
Q5. Name the two types of resources based on their origin. (2 Marks)
Answer: On the basis of origin, resources are classified as biotic and abiotic.
Q6. How are resources classified based on their exhaustibility? (2 Marks)
Answer: Resources are classified as renewable and non-renewable based on their exhaustibility.
Q7. What are the four classifications of resources based on ownership? (2 Marks)
Answer: On the basis of ownership, resources are classified as individual, community, national and international.
Q8. Name the four classifications of resources based on their status of development. (2 Marks)
Answer: On the basis of status of development, resources are classified as potential, developed, stock and reserves.
Q9. How do human beings contribute to the existence and utilization of resources? (2 Marks)
Answer: Human beings are essential components of resources. They transform material available in our environment into resources and then use them.
Q10. What three essential conditions must be met for something in our environment to be termed a ‘resource’? (2 Marks)
Answer: For something to be termed a ‘Resource’, it must be technologically accessible, economically feasible, and culturally acceptable.
Also read : Resource and Developmet Short Notes
Topic 2: Resource Development and Problems
Q11. Why are resources considered vital for human survival and quality of life? (2 Marks)
Answer: Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
Q12. What was the primary consequence of the widespread belief that resources were free gifts of nature? (2 Marks)
Answer: As a result of the belief that resources were free gifts of nature, human beings used them indiscriminately.
Q13. List two major problems that arose from the indiscriminate use of resources. (2 Marks)
Answer: Two major problems that arose were the depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of a few individuals, and the accumulation of resources in a few hands.
Q14. How has the indiscriminate exploitation of resources contributed to global ecological crises? (2 Marks)
Answer: Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises such as global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution, and land degradation.
Q15. Explain how the accumulation of resources in a few hands has divided society. (2 Marks)
Answer: The accumulation of resources in a few hands has divided society into two segments: ‘haves’ and ‘have-nots’, or rich and poor.
Q16. Why has an equitable distribution of resources become essential? (2 Marks)
Answer: An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace.
Q17. What is the potential danger if the current trend of resource depletion by a few individuals and countries continues? (2 Marks)
Answer: If the present trend of resource depletion by a few individuals and countries continues, the future of our planet is in danger.
Q18. What is resource planning essential for? (2 Marks)
Answer: Resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.
Q19. How is ‘sustainable existence’ related to ‘sustainable development’? (2 Marks)
Answer: Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable development.
Q20. Name two specific global ecological crises mentioned as consequences of indiscriminate resource exploitation. (2 Marks)
Answer: Two specific global ecological crises mentioned are global warming and ozone layer depletion.
Topic 3: Sustainable Development
Q21. Provide the definition of ‘Sustainable economic development’ as stated in the source. (2 Marks)
Answer: Sustainable economic development means ‘development should take place without damaging the environment, and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations’.
Q22. When and where was the first International Earth Summit held? (2 Marks)
Answer: The first International Earth Summit was held in June 1992, in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
Q23. What was the main purpose for convening the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit? (2 Marks)
Answer: The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level.
Q24. What key documents or principles were signed and adopted by the leaders at the Rio Convention? (2 Marks)
Answer: The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity, endorsed the global Forest Principles, and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.
Q25. What is Agenda 21, and when and where was it signed? (2 Marks)
Answer: Agenda 21 is a declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), which took place at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
Q26. What is the main aim of Agenda 21? (2 Marks)
Answer: Agenda 21 aims at achieving global sustainable development.
Q27. How does Agenda 21 propose to combat environmental damage, poverty, and disease? (2 Marks)
Answer: Agenda 21 proposes to combat environmental damage, poverty, and disease through global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs, and shared responsibilities.
Q28. What is a major objective of Agenda 21 at the local government level? (2 Marks)
Answer: One major objective of Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.
Q29. How does the concept of sustainable development balance the needs of the present with those of the future generations? (2 Marks)
Answer: Sustainable development ensures that development takes place without damaging the environment in the present, and it does not compromise with the needs of the future generations.
Q30. Why was an international summit, like the Rio Earth Summit, deemed necessary for addressing environmental and socio-economic problems? (2 Marks)
Answer: An international summit was necessary to address urgent problems of environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level, emphasizing global cooperation.
Also read : Resource and Developmet MCQs
Topic 4: Resource Planning in India
Q31. Why is planning considered a widely accepted strategy for resource use? (2 Marks)
Answer: Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources.
Q32. Explain why resource planning has significant importance in a country like India. (2 Marks)
Answer: Resource planning has importance in India because it has enormous diversity in the availability of resources, with some regions being rich in certain types but deficient in others, while some are self-sufficient and others face acute shortages.
Q33. Give an example of a state in India that is rich in minerals and coal deposits. (2 Marks)
Answer: Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh are examples of states rich in minerals and coal deposits.
Q34. Provide an example of a state in India that has abundant water resources but lacks infrastructural development. (2 Marks)
Answer: Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development.
Q35. Which Indian state is well-endowed with solar and wind energy but faces a shortage of water resources? (2 Marks)
Answer: The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources.
Q36. Describe the resource situation of the cold desert of Ladakh. (2 Marks)
Answer: The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has a very rich cultural heritage but is deficient in water, infrastructure, and some vital minerals.
Q37. What does the diverse availability of resources across different Indian regions call for? (2 Marks)
Answer: The diverse availability of resources across Indian regions calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional, and local levels.
Q38. Explain why some resource-rich regions in India are still considered economically backward. (2 Marks)
Answer: Many resource-rich regions in India are economically backward because the mere availability of resources is not enough; development requires accompanying appropriate technological development and institutional changes.
Q39. What factors, besides the availability of resources, are involved in resource development in India? (2 Marks)
Answer: In India, resource development involves not only the availability of resources, but also the technology, quality of human resources, and the historical experiences of the people.
Q40. What is the first step in the complex process of resource planning in India? (2 Marks)
Answer: The first step in resource planning in India is identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country, which involves surveying, mapping, and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
Topic 5: Conservation of Resources
Q41. Why is the conservation of resources important for any developmental activity? (2 Marks)
Answer: Resources are vital for any developmental activity, and irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems, making conservation at various levels important.
Q42. State Mahatma Gandhi’s famous words regarding resource consumption. (2 Marks)
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi stated, “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed”.
Q43. According to Gandhiji, what were the fundamental causes of resource depletion at the global level? (2 Marks)
Answer: According to Gandhiji, the greedy and selfish individuals and the exploitative nature of modern technology were the root causes for resource depletion at the global level.
Q44. What was Mahatma Gandhi’s stance on mass production? (2 Marks)
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi was against mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses.
Q45. Which international organization first systematically advocated resource conservation, and in what year? (2 Marks)
Answer: The Club of Rome first advocated resource conservation in a more systematic way in 1968 at the international level.
Q46. Who presented Gandhian philosophy on resource conservation in 1974, and in which book? (2 Marks)
Answer: In 1974, Gandhian philosophy was once again presented by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful.
Q47. Which report made a significant contribution to resource conservation at the global level in 1987? (2 Marks)
Answer: The Brundtland Commission Report, 1987, made a seminal contribution with respect to resource conservation at the global level.
Q48. What new concept did the Brundtland Commission Report introduce as a means for resource conservation? (2 Marks)
Answer: The Brundtland Commission Report introduced the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’ and advocated it as a means for resource conservation.
Q49. What was the title of the book in which the concept of sustainable development, advocated by the Brundtland Commission, was subsequently published? (2 Marks)
Answer: The concept of sustainable development, advocated by the Brundtland Commission Report, was subsequently published in a book entitled Our Common Future.
Q50. How do irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources lead to problems? (2 Marks)
Answer: Irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems.
Topic 6: Land Resources and Land Utilisation
Q51. Why is land considered a natural resource of utmost importance? (2 Marks)
Answer: Land is considered a natural resource of utmost importance because we live on it, perform our economic activities on it, and it supports natural vegetation, wildlife, human life, economic activities, transport, and communication systems.
Q52. What percentage of India’s land area is covered by plains, and what purposes do they serve? (2 Marks)
Answer: About 43 percent of India’s land area is plain, which provides facilities for agriculture and industry.
Q53. What percentage of India’s total surface area do mountains account for, and what are their benefits? (2 Marks)
Answer: Mountains account for 30 percent of the total surface area of the country and ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism, and have ecological aspects.
Q54. What percentage of India’s area is plateau region, and what resources does it possess? (2 Marks)
Answer: About 27 percent of the area of the country is the plateau region, and it possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels, and forests.
Q55. List two broad categories for which land resources are used. (2 Marks)
Answer: Land resources are used for purposes such as Forests and Land not available for cultivation (e.g., Barren and waste land, land put to non-agricultural uses).
Q56. Differentiate between ‘current fallow’ and ‘other than current fallow’ lands based on cultivation period. (2 Marks)
Answer: Current fallow land is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year, while ‘other than current fallow’ land is left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years.
Q57. Define ‘Net Sown Area’. (2 Marks)
Answer: Net sown area is the physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested.
Q58. What factors determine the land use pattern in India? (2 Marks)
Answer: The use of land is determined both by physical factors (such as topography, climate, soil types) as well as human factors (such as population density, technological capability, culture, and traditions).
Q59. Why is land use data available for only 93% of India’s total geographical area? (2 Marks)
Answer: Land use data is available for only 93% of the total geographical area because land use reporting for most North-East states (except Assam) has not been done fully, and some areas of Jammu and Kashmir occupied by Pakistan and China have also not been surveyed.
Q60. In which Indian states is the net sown area over 80% of the total area, and in which is it less than 10%? (2 Marks)
Answer: The net sown area is over 80% of the total area in Punjab and Haryana, and less than 10% in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, and Andaman Nicobar Islands.
Topic 7: Land Degradation and Conservation Measures
Q61. How does continuous use of land over a long period lead to land degradation? (2 Marks)
Answer: Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve and manage it, has resulted in land degradation.
Q62. List two human activities, apart from industrial activities, that contribute significantly to land degradation. (2 Marks)
Answer: Two human activities that significantly contribute to land degradation are deforestation and overgrazing. (Also mining and quarrying).
Q63. Explain how mining activities cause severe land degradation in states like Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. (2 Marks)
Answer: In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha, deforestation due to mining and the abandonment of mining sites leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening have caused severe land degradation.
Q64. What is identified as one of the main reasons for land degradation in states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra? (2 Marks)
Answer: Overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation in states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
Q65. How does over-irrigation in Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh lead to land degradation? (2 Marks)
Answer: In Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh, over-irrigation is responsible for land degradation due to water logging, which leads to an increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
Q66. Describe how mineral processing, such as grinding limestone for cement, contributes to land degradation. (2 Marks)
Answer: Mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry and calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere, which retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on the land.
Q67. What has become a major source of land and water pollution in many parts of the country in recent years? (2 Marks)
Answer: In recent years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land and water pollution in many parts of the country.
Q68. List two general measures suggested to help solve the problems of land degradation. (2 Marks)
Answer: Afforestation and proper management of grazing can help to some extent in solving problems of land degradation.
Q69. What specific methods can be employed to check land degradation in arid areas? (2 Marks)
Answer: In arid areas, planting of shelter belts of plants, control on over grazing, and stabilization of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes are some methods to check land degradation.
Q70. How can industrial areas mitigate land and water degradation caused by industrial effluents? (2 Marks)
Answer: Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment can reduce land and water degradation in industrial and suburban areas.
Topic 8: Soil as a Resource & Soil Formation
Q71. Why is soil considered the most important renewable natural resource? (2 Marks)
Answer: Soil is the most important renewable natural resource because it is the medium of plant growth and supports different types of living organisms on the earth.
Q72. How long does it take for soil to form up to a few centimeters in depth? (2 Marks)
Answer: It takes millions of years to form soil up to a few centimeters in depth.
Q73. List three important factors involved in the formation of soil. (2 Marks)
Answer: Three important factors in soil formation are relief, parent rock or bed rock, and climate. (Also vegetation, other forms of life, and time).
Q74. How do various forces of nature contribute to the formation of soil? (2 Marks)
Answer: Various forces of nature such as change in temperature, actions of running water, wind and glaciers, and activities of decomposers contribute to the formation of soil.
Q75. What types of changes are equally important in soil formation, besides the actions of natural forces? (2 Marks)
Answer: Chemical and organic changes which take place in the soil are equally important in soil formation.
Q76. What are the two main types of materials that soil primarily consists of? (2 Marks)
Answer: Soil consists of organic (humus) and inorganic materials.
Q77. On what bases are the soils of India classified into different types? (2 Marks)
Answer: The soils of India are classified based on the factors responsible for soil formation, colour, thickness, texture, age, chemical, and physical properties.
Q78. How have India’s varied geographical features influenced the development of its soil types? (2 Marks)
Answer: India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms, and vegetation types, and these have contributed in the development of various types of soils.
Q79. Describe the layers of a soil profile from top to bottom. (2 Marks)
Answer: From top to bottom, a soil profile consists of: Top soil (the upper soil layer), Subsoil (weathered rocks, sand, silt, clay), Substratum (weathered parent rock material), and Unweathered parent bed rock.
Q80. Why is soil referred to as a “living system”? (2 Marks)
Answer: Soil is referred to as a “living system” because it is the medium of plant growth and supports different types of living organisms on the earth.
Topic 9: Classification of Soils (Specific Types)
Q81. Which soil type is the most widely spread and important in India, and what major geographical feature is made of it? (2 Marks)
Answer: Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil, and the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil.
Q82. Name the three important Himalayan river systems that deposit alluvial soil in the northern plains. (2 Marks)
Answer: Alluvial soils have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems: the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra.
Q83. Where else in India, besides the northern plains, are alluvial soils found? (2 Marks)
Answer: Alluvial soil also extends in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor, and is found in the eastern coastal plains, particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Kaveri rivers.
Q84. Distinguish between ‘Bangar’ and ‘Khadar’ alluvial soils based on their age and characteristics. (2 Marks)
Answer: Bangar (old alluvial) soil has a higher concentration of kanker nodules and is less fertile, while Khadar (new alluvial) soil has more fine particles and is more fertile than Bangar.
Q85. What key nutrients do alluvial soils contain, making them ideal for specific crops? Name two such crops. (2 Marks)
Answer: Alluvial soils mostly contain adequate proportions of potash, phosphoric acid, and lime, making them ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat, and other cereal and pulse crops.
Q86. By what other names is black soil known, and what is its special suitability for cultivation? (2 Marks)
Answer: Black soils are also known as regur soils and black cotton soil, as they are ideal for growing cotton.
Q87. What are the important factors for the formation of black soil, and which major geological region does it typically cover? (2 Marks)
Answer: Climatic conditions along with the parent rock material are important factors for the formation of black soil. It is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region, made up of lava flows.
Q88. Describe two key physical properties of black soils regarding their texture and moisture retention. (2 Marks)
Answer: Black soils are made up of extremely fine, clayey material and are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture.
Q89. How do Red and Yellow Soils develop, and what causes their characteristic reddish color? (2 Marks)
Answer: Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall. They develop a reddish colour due to the diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
Q90. Describe the typical characteristics of Laterite soil and mention two crops it is useful for growing in specific regions of India. (2 Marks)
Answer: Laterite soil develops under tropical and subtropical climates with alternate wet and dry seasons due to intense leaching. It is mostly deep to very deep, acidic, and generally deficient in plant nutrients. After appropriate conservation techniques, it is very useful for growing tea and coffee in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
Topic 10: Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation
Q91. Define ‘soil erosion’ as described in the source. (2 Marks)
Answer: Soil erosion is the denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down.
Q92. How is the natural balance between soil formation and erosion sometimes disturbed? (2 Marks)
Answer: The natural balance between soil formation and erosion is sometimes disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining, as well as natural forces like wind, glacier, and water.
Q93. Explain how running water causes ‘gully erosion’, and what such land is known as. (2 Marks)
Answer: The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land, or ravines in the Chambal basin.
Q94. What is ‘sheet erosion’? (2 Marks)
Answer: Sheet erosion occurs when water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope, resulting in the topsoil being washed away.
Q95. How does wind cause ‘wind erosion’? (2 Marks)
Answer: Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land, which is known as wind erosion.
Q96. How can defective methods of farming, specifically ploughing, contribute to soil erosion? (2 Marks)
Answer: Ploughing in a wrong way, such as up and down the slope, forms channels for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion.
Q97. Describe ‘contour ploughing’ as a method of soil conservation. (2 Marks)
Answer: Contour ploughing involves ploughing along the contour lines, which can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
Q98. How does ‘terrace cultivation’ help in restricting soil erosion? (2 Marks)
Answer: Terrace cultivation involves cutting steps out on the slopes making terraces, which restricts erosion. This method is well developed in Western and central Himalayas.
Q99. What is ‘strip cropping’, and how does it aid in soil conservation? (2 Marks)
Answer: Strip cropping involves dividing large fields into strips and leaving strips of grass to grow between the crops, which breaks up the force of the wind.
Q100. How do ‘shelter belts’ contribute to stabilizing arid areas, particularly in western India? (2 Marks)
Answer: Shelter belts, which are lines of trees planted to create shelter, break up the force of the wind and have contributed significantly to the stabilization of sand dunes and in stabilizing the desert in western India.
